Cédric Bakambu is poised for a move to FC Villars l’Isle Saint Maurice Blussans, a club currently competing in the R2 division of French football, according to reports emerging from the club. The move represents a significant turn in the career of the experienced forward, who has spent recent seasons playing in the Saudi Pro League.
Bakambu, 37, began his professional career in France with Sochaux before moving to Turkey and then to Villarreal in Spain. He later had spells in China and Saudi Arabia, demonstrating a willingness to explore different footballing landscapes. While known for his pace and finishing ability, Bakambu’s recent form has been largely outside of the European spotlight.
The decision for Bakambu to join Villars l’Isle Saint Maurice Blussans is reportedly driven by a unique challenge presented by the club's owner, Unai. The club is aiming for a remarkable run in the Coupe de France, with aspirations of facing Paris Saint-Germain at the Stade de France in 2028. This ambitious goal, coupled with the opportunity for a final European challenge, appears to have swayed Bakambu.
FC Villars l’Isle Saint Maurice Blussans is a small club located in the Doubs region of France, and this move has generated considerable attention due to the disparity between the player’s profile and the club’s level. The club, according to sources, has also secured the services of former French internationals Marvin Martin and Ryad Boudebouz, further adding to the intrigue. The addition of these players suggests a concerted effort to elevate the club’s profile and compete at a higher level.
This transfer is likely to be a short-term project focused on the Coupe de France, offering Bakambu a chance to end his career on a memorable note. For Villars l’Isle Saint Maurice Blussans, it represents an unprecedented opportunity to attract attention and potentially achieve a historic cup run.
