Leon Goretzka is weighing up a move to Major League Soccer with Chicago Fire after talks with AC Milan were reportedly paused, according to Sport Bild. The midfielder will become a free agent this summer when his contract with Bayern Munich expires.
Initial expectations pointed towards a move to Serie A, but a recent change in management at Milan has complicated those plans. Sport Bild reports that discussions between Goretzka and the Italian club have been put on hold as a result, opening the door for other potential suitors.
Chicago Fire have now emerged as a possible destination for the 29-year-old Germany international. While no formal negotiations have begun, the club has expressed interest in acquiring the experienced midfielder. Goretzka recently used Chicago Fire’s training facilities while preparing for the World Cup with the German national team, potentially familiarizing him with the club’s setup.
Goretzka joined Bayern Munich from Schalke 04 in 2018 and has been a key part of their midfield, winning six Bundesliga titles and the Champions League in 2020. However, he has faced increased competition for places in recent seasons, and the club has not offered him a contract extension. He has made 264 appearances for Bayern across all competitions, scoring 31 goals.
Chicago Fire have a history of attracting established European players, previously fielding former German internationals Bastian Schweinsteiger and Arne Friedrich. They have also been linked with another former Bayern Munich player, Robert Lewandowski, suggesting an ambition to bolster their squad with high-profile signings. Securing Goretzka would represent a significant coup for the MLS side and add considerable quality to their midfield.
The potential arrival of Goretzka could signal a shift in Chicago Fire’s strategy, aiming to become a more competitive force in MLS through experienced European talent. His leadership and technical ability would likely make him a central figure in the team.
